word/power to the information.

So based on your statement, is the aryan invasion then the first known caste of instilling caste-dom?

Do we have concrete evidence that aryans carried a doctrine/divine-based philosophy of indians being beneath them in terms as human beings?

In other words, what would indicate an "aryan supremacy" mindset during that time?

There have ALWAYS been invasions for whatever purposes, mainly the proximity to natural resources (hunting/gathering/farming/agriculture, water) and there has been intermingling. It is said that is why indians have dark features and straight hair.

Normans vs. Scots...Karibs vs. Arawaks...Apache vs. Miami

But can we say that there was a BLOOD PURITY/EXCLUSIVIST doctrine within germanic and aryan history as practiced by the semites?

Of your opinion/studies, what is the root of human supremacy implementations against others (as created inferiors), as encompassed within a doctrine of divine authority/sanctioning/justification?

Give thankhs to the reasoning