capitalism can't be fixed or regulated to work correctly because at its origins is a doctrine of deceit.
check this out:
***"trade merchants regularly tried to cheat one another in the market place.  In so doing they used other merchants’ ignorance of arithmetic to swindle them. Arithmetic—which at the time consisted mostly of knowledge of the Arab numerals, four basic mathematical operations and the “golden rule,” or the “rule of three,” where a missing fourth number in two equal ratios is found—had just reached Europe by way of Arab merchants. Between the 13th and 16th centuries a group of merchants in Europe, particularly in Italy, wrote manuscripts to teach merchants’ children, who attended special training schools, the newly received arithmetic. But what is perhaps most interesting about these manuscripts is that almost all of them teach how to use arithmetic, particularly in the act of barter, to cheat their trading opponents and increase what they called the “overprice.” As such, these medieval manuscripts taught that the rule of exchange was to come out ahead in transaction and that barter was “nothing but giving a good for another in order to get more.”
To make a long story short, in the medieval markets arithmetic became a tool, a “financial innovation” to use the language of the modern market, to make more money. The rule of the game was to take advantage of arithmetical ignorance of others to gain as much profit as possible. This was how capitalism was born. It was born not of honesty, equality, justice or fairness in exchange, but of deceit, swindle, inequality, injustice and unfairness. It was also in this same period that one can find the emergence of many other financial innovations, such as forward contracts and bills of exchange, innovations that tried to increase profit by reducing uncertainty and risk."***
i think this is EXTREMELY interesting in light of the conversation of the Semitic influence on Europe. i think in the reasoning of most there is usually no mention of the fact that a whole system of mercantilism existed prior to Europe's conversion to Capitalism - a system that was dominated by "Semites." it is no wonder that the European nation-states/church kept the business of money-lending in the confines of those who knew it best - the Jews. there is no place in many liberal historians views for the role that Jews played in proto-Capitalism - the blame of any wrong-doing, etc. is usually placed squarly on the Church/Europe/ etc. If Jews were an already functioning multi-national mercantilist organization before Europe got on with Capitalism, then how come they are not mentioned in the conversation?
However - this does not take away from the point I was making that the interplay of Europe and the Jews and the subsequent amalgam which gave us today Zionism is also somewhat of a different beast. I think there is much to understand in the differences and it is incorrect to broadly categorize.
Why can't the US/Europe break away from Zionist influence even though it supposedly "set-up" Israel as a proxy-power? Perhaps this is where the conversation lacks - is is perhaps a two-way street. The U.S./Europe have had no problem dictating to other proxy-powers the agenda, but it seems the case of Israel is different. Maybe we won't understand until we understand the history of it ALL and not JUST on the time from the creation of the state of Israel to today as many liberal scholars do.
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