peace and hotep,

iyah360, you asked:

"do you think that this semitic language is from non-black people?"

no, only that the written languages of semites appeared as geez and amharic in ethiopia only after waves of indo-european migrations/invasions/conquests.

yes, in india, the indigenous black populations were conquered by the northern euro-asians called aryans at the same time that hebrews or hyksos was invading africa. why is it acceptable that aryans invaded india but hebrew/hyksos did not invade kemet or that the 'peoples of the sea' were not invading africa. just the "wanderings" of chosen peoples?

iyah360, the term 'middle east' is a recent discription of zionist occupied palestine and its surrounding arab states.

iyah360, you know that by the end of the pliestocene, the overwhelming majority of inhabitants of the southern hemisphere was classified as non'white' although albinos are birth all of the time by those same non'whites'.

iyah360, the habasha from southern arabia could be as indo-european as colin powell. you know of the caste system and it is still alive in whole indian ocean area as well as sudan,nigeria or jamaica. yes, non'white' people are still functioning tools of white pseudo-supremacy. even on this board.

iyah360, is it that hard to see that white supremacist black converts are the ones who brought the semetic language with them which developed into ge-ez?

freedomisahapislave